The CDC has recently estimated that 1 in 150 persons in the US have an autism disorder. In the UK Simon Baron-Cohen states that the accepted prevalence rate is 1 in 100. Why is there a difference, a very substantial difference, between these two countries? Is the difference due to different medical and educational systems and different methods of reporting or is it due to environmental differences? I have not seen anyone explain this difference. If anyone knows of any explanations fore the huge differences in estimates between these two countries please feel free to offer your comments.
No comments:
Post a Comment